MCM301 Final Term Objective

MCM301- Communication skills · Composed By Faheem Saqib · A Mega File of Final term Exams & Quizzes · FINALTERM EXAMINATION Fall 2009

MCM301- Communication skills (Session - 1) Ref No: 472652 Time: 120 min Marks: 81

Q1. When people ask you for information and you can’t honor the request, you may answer with: (1 marks)

1. Direct approach only
2. Indirect approach only
3. None of the given options
4. Both direct and indirect approach

Q2. In a well written disappointing newsletter all of the following points are important, except: (1 marks)

1. Enough detail to make the reason for the refusal logically acceptable
2. Explaining the company’s policy as logical rather than rigid
3. Offering an apology for the decision
4. Avoiding negative personal expressions

Q3. Which of the following is not a part of the writing plan of a reservation letter? (1 marks)

1. A fast-start opening which identifies the type of room desired and the days needed
2. A section which mentions arrival and departure times
3. A section describing the quality of the room you booked in the other hotel
4. A courteous, action-oriented closing, which mentions your desire for a confirmation

Q4. The letters written to book some place like room, hall etc are called: (1 marks)

1. Informal social invitation letters
2. Reservation letters
3. Claim letters
4. Order letters

Q5. Which of the following is not suggested for an appropriate ending of business writing (request letters)? (1 marks)

1. Keep the ending paragraph as long as circumstances allow.
2. State who is to perform the desired action if the action is to be performed by someone other than the reader.
3. Include reader-benefit material, if appropriate.
4. Avoid the inclusion of negative information in the ending.

Q6. In a direct request letter, request can be presented in: (1 marks)

1. Middle paragraph
2. Closing sentence
3. First sentence
4. Closing paragraph

Q7. Which of the following is NOT the stage of effective business writing? (1 marks)

1. Planning Stage
2. Organizing Stage
3. Drafting Stage
4. Body Composition Stage

Q8. While preparing for effective business writing Drafting Stage involves all of the following EXCEPT: (1 marks)

1. Develop appropriate beginning paragraph
2. Compose the body
3. Develop appropriate ending paragraph
4. Editing

Q9. Which of the following is NOT a result of incomplete messages? (1 marks)

1. Loss of goodwill
2. Loss of valued customers
3. Loss of sales
4. Gaining the good name

Q10. “His GPA in 2000 (MBA) was 3.9 on a four point scale.” Which of the following is a correct and more concrete form of this statement? (1 marks)

1. His GPA was 3.9 on a four point scale.
2. His GPA was good in 2000.
3. He got a good score in his MBA Program.
4. All of the given options

Q11. The vocabulary of informal writing is: (1 marks)

1. Less difficult
2. Tricky
3. Intricate
4. All of the given options

Q12. Which one of the following is not a fallacy about resume? (1 marks)

1. The purpose of a resume is to list all your skills and abilities.
2. The more good information you present about yourself in your resume, the better.
3. If you want a really good resume, have it prepared by a resume service.
4. The objective of a resume is to kindle the employer interest and generate an interview.

Q13. The suggested plan for a sales letter includes all of the following elements, EXCEPT: (1 marks)

1. An opening that could detract the reader’s attention
2. A section that captures the reader’s interest in the product or service you are selling
3. A section designed to establish desire and conviction on the part of the reader
4. A courteous, action-oriented closing

Q14. Where do cultural styles of audience in persuasion tend to differ? (1 marks)

1. Differ in their responses to persuasive appeals
2. Differ in their levels of visible emotion
3. Differ in how they regard supporting materials
4. All of the given options

Q15. When scientists note that the average temperature is rising each year in Sydney, Cairo, Tokyo, and other major cities, they conclude that the entire globe is warming up. Which form of reasoning are they using? (1 marks)

1. Emotional
2. Narrative
3. Deductive
4. Inductive

Q16. What do motivational appeals refer to? (1 marks)

1. Emotions
2. All of the given options
3. Values
4. Psychological needs

Q17. Which of the following methods cannot be used to capture attention in the opening paragraph of a persuasive message? (1 marks)

1. Use of color
2. Use of receiver's name
3. Use of conjunction
4. Use of an interjection

Q18. Which of the following must NOT be adopted in preparing disappointing news messages? (1 marks)

1. Use sales-promotion material whenever appropriate.
2. Consider using an implicit refusal rather than an explicit refusal.
3. Capitalize on what you can do for the reader rather than what you cannot do.
4. Use negative words or phrases.

Q19. All of the following functions are performed by a good buffer, except: (1 marks)

1. Compliments the reader
2. Expresses your appreciation for being thought of
3. Assures the reader of your attention to the request
4. Indicates your lack of understanding of the reader’s needs

Q20. All of the following is achieved by adopting audience centered tone in a disappointing news message, EXCEPT: (1 marks)

1. Accepting that your disappointing-news represents a firm decision
2. Understanding that, under the circumstances, your decision was fair and reasonable
3. Remain well disposed toward your business
4. Destroying the receiver’s pride

Q21. Which of the following is true about goodwill messages? (1 marks)

1. Seemingly informative
2. Presented to change attitudes
3. Presented to change behaviors
4. All of the given options

Q22. Which statement would be the best close for an adjustment letter? (1 marks)

1. We regret the trouble that the faulty keyboard caused you.
2. Your new keyboard is being air expressed to you.
3. Your business is appreciated.
4. You may be interested in upgrading your internal memory with our inexpensive chips.

Q23. The direct plan can be used for: (1 marks)

1. Sales messages
2. Request refusals
3. Claims
4. None of the given options

Q24. Bc is an abbreviation of which of the following? (1 marks)

1. Blind copy
2. Branded copy
3. Begged copy
4. Before copy

Q25. Which of the following method of outlining topic presents the specific information first, followed by the conclusion? (1 marks)

1. Direct method
2. Indirect method
3. Supporting method
4. Sustaining method

Q26. While preparing for effective business writing Planning Stage involves all of the following EXCEPT: (1 marks)

1. Determine your purpose
2. Consider your reader
3. Determine the appropriate content
4. Choose your clothes

Q27. Example of small group through put processes include: (1 marks)

1. Solutions and decisions
2. Group members' personal satisfaction
3. Group norms
4. Group members' abilities and skills doubt

Q28. Diversity is important to the success of groups. What does it imply? (1 marks)

1. Group members should tolerate diversity
2. Group members should encourage and support diversity
3. Group members should be honest in their personal views toward diversity
4. Co-cultures can contribute to group dysfunction if differences dominate group goals

Q29. Visual aids perform which of the following functions? (1 marks)

1. Emphasizing important points
2. Illustrating how things work
3. Illustrating how things are related to one another
4. All of the given options

Q30. Which of the following information is true for bar charts, simple column charts and multi-column charts? (1 marks)

1. All can be used effectively for the same purpose
2. Can be used to illustrate varied values
3. Are usually not good visual aids
4. All of the given options

Q31. Which one of the following is NOT a common reason for disruptive behavior? (1 marks)

1. Resistance to change.
2. Resentment of the presenter.
3. Repetition of behavior that is successful for the detractor.
4. Reappearance of the presenter.

Q32. How do having your hands on your hips, pointing with your index finger, and pounding your fists is commonly interpreted as? (1 marks)

1. Open or confident
2. Dictatorial or arrogant
3. Insecure or nervous
4. Happy or pleased

Q33. When does a presentation begin? (1 marks)

1. The moment you begin speaking.
2. The moment you are asked to give a presentation.
3. The moment you are in view of your listeners.
4. The moment you decide on a topic for your presentation.

Q34. Which of the following is the skill of speaking in distinct syllables? (1 marks)

1. Articulation
2. Fillers
3. Inflection
4. Monotone delivery

Q35. Which one of the following is a method of arranging information by dividing it into parts? (1 marks)

1. Spatial pattern
2. Chronological pattern
3. Topical pattern
4. Logical pattern

Q36. When a quotation is quite long for the introduction of speech, it is suggested that the presenter may: (1 marks)

1. Use it as it is at the beginning of the presentation
2. Use it as it is at the conclusion of the presentation
3. Paraphrase the quotation to avoid confusion and/or boredom
4. Decide not to take advantage of the quotation

Q37. Which of the following is usually related to environmental factors that affect the communication? (1 marks)

1. Listener barrier
2. Sender barrier
3. Physical barrier
4. Resistance